Answers to Review Questions

Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body

Terminology
  1. What is the anatomical position?

Descriptions and relationships based on a person standing erect, facing forward, with arms at the sides, palms facing forward, legs together, and feet directed forward.

  2. Identify the plane of section for each of the following descriptions.

Equal right and left halves: Median plane
Anterior and posterior parts: Coronal (frontal) section
Unequal right and left halves: Sagittal or parasagittal section

  3. What layer lies beneath the dermis?

Superficial fascia (hypodermis), which is subcutaneous tissue.

  4. What are the components of the axial skeleton?

Skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum.

  5. What type of joint is united by cartilage and possesses a cavity and capsule?

Synovial joint.

  6. What are the three different types of muscle?

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.

  7. What term is used to describe the moveable distal site of a muscle’s attachment?

Insertion (of the muscle).

Cardiovascular System
  8. What two systemic veins return blood to the right atrium of the heart?

Superior and inferior venae cavae.

  9. Which vessels possess valves?

Larger veins of the limbs and lower neck.

10. What is the clinical term for the pain associated with myocardial ischemia?

Angina pectoris. Atherogenesis of the coronary arteries can compromise the blood supply to the myocardium and precipitate an ischemic episode that is felt as chest pain (angina).

Lymphatic System

11. What body regions are ultimately drained of lymph by the thoracic duct?

Left upper body quadrant and both lower body quadrants.

Respiratory System
12. The pharynx is divided into three regions. Name them.

Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx (hypopharynx).

Nervous System
13. Functionally, what type of neuron conveys electrical impulses from the CNS to a peripheral target site?

Efferent (motor) neuron.

14. Where is CSF usually found?

In brain ventricles and the subarachnoid space.

15. What are the names of the 12 cranial nerves?

Use the mnemonic: On (Olfactory) Old (Optic) Olympus’ (Oculomotor) Towering (Trochlear) Top (Trigeminal), A (Abducens) Finn (Facial) And (Auditory-Vestibulocochlear) German (Glossopharyngeal) Viewed (Vagus) Some (Accessory-Spinal Accessory) Hops (Hypoglossal).

16. How are the 31 pairs of spinal nerves regionally distributed?

8 cervical pairs, 12 thoracic pairs, 5 lumbar pairs, 5 sacral pairs, and 1 coccygeal pair.

17. What are the two functional and anatomic divisions of the ANS?

Sympathetic (thoracolumbar) and parasympathetic (craniosacral) divisions.

18. Which division of the ANS functions to mobilize the body in fight-or-flight situations?

Sympathetic division.

Endocrine System
19. For each hormone listed below, identify the endocrine gland or tissue that secretes it.

FSH: Anterior pituitary gland
T4: Thyroid gland
Inhibin: Ovary
GH: Anterior pituitary gland
Cortisol: Adrenal cortex
ANP: Atria of the heart
Insulin: Pancreas
Testosterone: Testis
Renin: Kidney
Melatonin: Pineal
Oxytocin: Hypothalamus
Prolactin: Anterior pituitary gland

Gastrointestinal System
20. What are the subdivisions of the large intestine?

Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and anal canal.

Urinary System
21. What are the ureters, and what do they do?

The paired ureters drain the urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder, lie in a retroperitoneal position, extend about 24 to 34 cm in length, and possess a thick smooth muscle wall.

Reproductive System
22. How are sperm conveyed from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct of the seminal vesicles?

Sperm travel in the ductus (vas) deferens.

Body Cavities
23. What is the peritoneum?

A thin mesothelial membrane that lines the body cavity walls (parietal peritoneum), reflects off the walls to form a double layer of peritoneum called a mesentery, and reflects onto the abdominal organs as a visceral peritoneal layer. It secretes a small amount of serous fluid to lubricate the peritoneal surfaces and reduce friction.

Embryology Overview
24. What key event marks the third week of embryonic development?

Gastrulation.

25. For each of the following tissues, state whether it is derived from ectoderm, mesoderm, or endoderm:

Notochord: Mesoderm
Epidermis: Ectoderm
Neurons: Ectoderm
Lining of GI tract: Endoderm
Nails and hair: Ectoderm
Heart: Mesoderm
Skeletal muscle: Mesoderm
Dermis: Mesoderm
Lining of airways: Endoderm
Ganglia: Ectoderm

Chapter 2: Back

  1. An imaginary horizontal line drawn posteriorly, connecting the iliac crests, will pass through which vertebral level?

Spinous process of L4 and the intervertebral disc of L4-L5.

  2. Why is the line connecting the iliac crests clinically important?

It is a useful landmark for a lumbar puncture or epidural block.

  3. What are the lay terms for the following accentuated curvatures?

Lordosis: Swayback
Kyphosis: Hunchback
Scoliosis: Curved back

  4. Two laminae fuse to form what vertebral feature?

Spinous process.

  5. What are the craniovertebral joints?

Synovial joints between the atlas and occipital bone (atlantooccipital joint) and between the atlas and axis (atlantoaxial joint).

  6. Most herniated intervertebral discs occur at which vertebral levels?

L4-L5 or L5-S1.

  7. What embryonic structure gives rise to the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc?

Notochord.

  8. A herniated disc at the L4-L5 level that impinges on a spinal nerve root will most likely involve components of which spinal nerve?

L5.

  9. Which vertebral joint allows for turning the head side-to-side, to indicate “no”?

Atlantoaxial joint.

10. Which vertebral ligament connects adjacent laminae?

Ligamentum flavum.

11. How can the back muscles be grouped functionally?

Into three groups: superficial (upper limb muscles), intermediate (muscles of respiration), and deep (postural muscles).

12. Which back muscle is innervated by the dorsal primary rami of spinal nerves?

Deep intrinsic back muscles.

13. What are the three major groups of erector spinae muscles?

Iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis muscles.

14. What important artery passes through the transverse foramina of C1-C6 and appears in the suboccipital triangle?

Vertebral artery, a branch of the subclavian in the neck.

15. How are the 31 pairs of spinal nerves distributed regionally?

8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1 coccygeal pair.

16. Each peripheral nerve arising from the spinal cord may contain hundreds of three types of axons. What are these types of axons?

Somatic efferent (motor) axons, afferent (sensory) axons, and postganglionic sympathetic axons.

17. What is the term for the region of skin innervated by cutaneous fibers from a single spinal cord segment?

Dermatome.

18. Where is CSF found?

In the brain ventricles, spinal central canal, and subarachnoid space of the brain and spinal cord.

19. What arteries run the length of the spinal cord, and where are they situated?

A single anterior artery and two posterior arteries run the length of the spinal cord.

20. What portion of the embryonic somite gives rise to the cartilaginous precursor of the axial skeleton?

Sclerotome.

21. What is a common neural tube defect that leads to incomplete development of the vertebral arch?

Spina bifida.

22. What ectodermal derivative gives rise to the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord)?

Neural tube.

Chapter 3: Thorax

  1. What is the sternal angle of Louis, and why is it important?

It is the articulation of the manubrium and body of the sternum, and it marks the dividing point of the superior mediastinum from the inferior mediastinum. It also overlies the tracheal bifurcation and aortic arch and is useful for counting intercostal spaces. (Second ribs articulate here.)

  2. What is the primary site for lymphatic drainage from the breast?

Axillary lymph nodes (75% of all lymph).

  3. Which breast quadrant has the greatest occurrence of cancer, and what type of breast cancer is most common?

Upper outer quadrant and the axillary tail of Spence. The most common type is infiltrating ductal carcinoma (70% to 80%).

  4. Which intercostal muscles are most important for inspiration?

External intercostals, as they elevate the ribs and, along with the diaphragm, increase the volume of the thoracic cavity.

  5. Which layer of pleura intimately invests the lung?

Visceral pleura.

  6. What is the inferior extent of the lung and parietal pleura in quiet respiration at the midaxillary line?

Lung extends to the eighth rib and the pleura to the tenth rib.

  7. Of the structures entering or leaving the lung at the hilum, where do the pulmonary veins usually lie in relation to the other hilar structures?

Anteroinferior to the pulmonary arteries and bronchi.

  8. What is thoracic outlet syndrome?

Compression of one or more of the structures passing out of the thoracic outlet. The subclavian artery or vein or the lower portion of the brachial plexus is often involved.

  9. Why do most lung abscesses occur in the right lung?

The right main bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left bronchus, and aspirated infective agents can gain easier access to the right lung.

10. What types of nerve fibers travel in the thoracic cardiac nerves?

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers (to the heart) and visceral afferents from the heart.

11. Which coronary artery supplies the SA node?

Right, usually via its SA nodal branch.

12. Why is angina pectoris an example of referred pain?

Visceral afferents from the ischemic heart are conveyed to the upper thoracic spinal cord levels, which also receive somatic afferents from the T1-T4 dermatomes. Both groups of afferents converge in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and angina may be perceived as localized to the somatic distribution (T1-T4) rather than identified with the heart.

13. What are the semilunar valves?

The pulmonary and aortic valves. Each has three semilunar cusps or leaflets. (They share a common embryologic origin.)

14. Trace the conduction pathway through the heart.

SA node to AV node to common AV bundle (of His) to the right and left bundle branches and subendocardial Purkinje system.

15. What veins drain the posterior thoracic wall?

Drainage is largely by tributaries of the azygos system of veins (intercostal veins).

16. Why is the azygos system of veins important clinically?

It has important connections with tributaries of the inferior vena cava and portal system, which normally drains most of the venous blood from below the diaphragm back to the heart. If this drainage is compromised, the connections with the azygos system provide alternative routes of venous return to the heart.

17. What structure in the embryonic foregut region gives rise to the lung buds?

Laryngotracheal diverticulum.

18. What does the fourth pair of aortic arches become in the adult?

On the right side, the right subclavian artery; on the left side, the aortic arch.

19. What is the most common congenital heart defect?

VSD, which usually occurs in the membranous portion of the interventricular septum.

20. What are the hallmarks of tetralogy of Fallot?

Pulmonary stenosis or narrowing of the right ventricular outflow, transposed aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and VSD.

Chapter 4: Abdomen

  1. Which dermatome overlies the umbilicus?

T10.

  2. What abdominal viscera lie in the left hypochondriac region?

Spleen, splenic flexure of the transverse colon, pancreatic tail, stomach (variable), and part of the left kidney.

  3. What are the layers of the abdominal wall?

Skin; subcutaneous tissue (fatty Camper’s fascia and membranous Scarpa’s fascia in lower abdomen); external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles; transversalis fascia; extraperitoneal fascia (preperitoneal fat); and peritoneum.

  4. What nerve is in the spermatic cord, and what does it innervate?

Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve. It innervates the cremaster muscle.

  5. What is an indirect inguinal hernia?

A hernia that occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, passes through the deep inguinal ring and inguinal canal, and may appear at the superficial inguinal ring.

  6. What is the access point to the lesser sac?

The epiploic foramen (of Winslow), just posterior to the hepatoduodenal ligament and anterior to the IVC.

  7. Where does the hepatopancreatic ampulla terminate?

In the lumen of the second, or descending, part of the duodenum.

  8. What are the three major branches of the celiac artery (trunk), and what do they supply?

Left gastric, common hepatic, and splenic. They supply the spleen and the foregut derivatives of the GI tract.

  9. Identify several easy ways to differentiate the jejunum from the ileum.

The jejunum compared to the ileum is larger in diameter; its mesentery contains less fat; its arterial arcades are fewer; and it has a longer vasa recta.

10. What structures are supplied blood by the SMA?

Midgut derivatives of the GI tract.

11. Where is McBurney’s point?

One third of the way along a line connecting the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. It is a good landmark for locating an inflamed appendix (point of tenderness).

12. Which portions of the large bowel are retroperitoneal?

Ascending colon, descending colon, and rectum.

13. What is the bare area of the liver?

The portion that is pressed against the diaphragm and is not covered with visceral peritoneum. It will have a dull appearance rather than a glistening appearance.

14. What the four important sites of portocaval anastomoses?

Esophageal, paraumbilical, rectal, and retroperitoneal.

15. Trace bile from the liver to the gallbladder and then the duodenum, naming every duct traversed in correct order.

Right and left hepatic ducts to the common hepatic duct to the cystic duct to the gallbladder. From the gallbladder to the cystic duct to the common bile duct to the hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater) to the second part of the duodenum.

16. Where does the thoracic lymphatic duct begin?

In the abdomen at the cisterna chyli, which is the dilated beginning of the duct that receives lymph from lumbar and interstitial lymphatic glands.

17. Identify three common anatomical sites where a renal calculus (stone) may become lodged and obstruct urine flow.

At the ureteropelvic junction; at the point where the ureter crosses the external iliac vessels; and at the ureterovesical junction.

18. Into which veins do the gonadal veins empty?

The right vein empties into the IVC, and the left vein empties into the left renal vein.

19. How are thoracic splanchnic nerves distributed to the abdominal GI tract?

They distribute to the foregut and midgut derivatives of the GI tract by synapsing in the celiac and superior mesenteric ganglia and sending postganglionic fibers to the viscera on the vessels of the celiac artery and SMA.

20. Where do pain afferents from the abdominal viscera terminate in the central nervous system?

Afferent axons conveying pain pass via the thoracic and lumbar splanchnic nerves to the dorsal root ganglia (site of the afferent neurons) and into the spinal cord between the T5 and L2 levels, where they synapse in the dorsal horn (gray matter).

21. Which nerves of the lumbar plexus arise from the L2-L4 ventral rami, and what do they innervate?

Femoral nerve, which innervates the anterior compartment muscles of the thigh (largely knee extensors), and obturator, which innervates medial compartment muscles of the thigh (largely hip adductors).

22. What is the parasympathetic innervation to the abdominal GI tract?

Foregut and midgut derivatives are innervated by the vagus nerve; the hindgut is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-S4).

23. What is the axis around which the gut tube rotates during development?

The superior mesenteric artery (SMA).

24. What is the metanephros?

The mesoderm into which the ureteric bud grows and differentiates to form the definitive human kidney.

Chapter 5: Pelvis and Perineum

  1. What features demarcate the boundaries of the lesser or true pelvis?

The pelvic brim, sacrum, and coccyx.

  2. When comparing the female pubic arch to the male arch, what difference is apparent?

The female pubic arch is larger and wider.

  3. What important spaces are created by the sacrospinous ligament?

The greater and lesser sciatic foramina. They provide an avenue for structures to pass from the pelvis to the gluteal region and posterior thigh, and for the pudendal vessels and nerves to enter the pudendal canal and pass to the perineum.

  4. What muscles make up the pelvic diaphragm?

Levator ani and coccygeus.

  5. What are the descriptive subdivisions of the uterus?

The body (fundus and isthmus) and cervix.

  6. Why is the rectouterine pouch (of Douglas) important?

It is the lowest point in the female pelvis (where peritoneal fluids may collect), and access to drain these fluids is possible via the posterior vaginal fornix.

  7. What are the descriptive subdivisions of the broad ligament?

Mesovarium (surrounds and suspends ovary), mesosalpinx (surrounds and suspends uterine tubes), and mesometrium (surrounds and supports the uterus).

  8. What structures may be involved in stress incontinence in women?

Stress incontinence may result from a loss of functional integrity of the pubovesical ligaments, vesicocervical fascia, levator ani, and/or urethral sphincter.

  9. Uterine prolapse may occur with the loss of support of which important structures?

The transverse cervical (cardinal) and uterosacral ligaments, and the levator ani muscle.

10. Which branches of the internal iliac artery arise from its posterior division?

Iliolumbar, lateral sacral, and superior gluteal arteries.

11. How does the urinary bladder empty itself?

Appropriate central nervous system reflexes initiate voiding via stimulation of pelvic splanchnic nerves to the bladder; this causes contraction of the detrusor smooth muscle of the bladder wall. Voluntary relaxation of external sphincter urethrae muscle tone occurs in conjunction with the detrusor contraction, but it is mediated by the somatic nervous system. In males, sympathetic relaxation of the internal sphincter (females lack an internal sphincter) also occurs with detrusor muscle contraction.

12. What are descriptive subdivisions of the male urethra?

Prostatic, membranous, and spongy (penile).

13. Where do sperm and seminal fluids empty into the urethra?

Into the prostatic urethra via the ejaculatory ducts.

14. What is the innervation of the external anal sphincter?

Inferior anal (rectal) nerves from the pudendal nerve (S2-S4).

15. Which rectal veins are involved in portocaval anastomoses?

The inferior and middle rectal veins (tributaries of the internal iliac vein—caval system) anastomose with the superior rectal vein from the inferior mesenteric vein, a tributary of the portal venous system.

16. What is the parasympathetic innervation of the pelvic viscera?

Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers arise from S2-S4 via pelvic splanchnic nerves that course to the inferior hypogastric plexus (pelvic), synapse there, and then innervate pelvic viscera (smooth muscle and glands).

17. Lymphatic spread of cancer cells from a malignant ovarian tumor may involve the aortic (lumbar) lymph nodes directly. Why?

The lymphatic vessels of the ovary follow the ovarian artery directly back to the abdominal aorta and infiltrate aortic nodes in this region.

18. What are the boundaries of the diamond-shaped perineum?

The pubic symphysis anteriorly, the ischial tuberosities laterally, and the coccyx posteriorly.

19. Why is the central tendon of the perineum important?

It anchors the perineum because it provides for the attachment of many skeletal muscles of the perineum as well as fascial layers.

20. What is a common cause of erectile dysfunction in men?

Loss of functionality in the nerves that relax the smooth muscle tone of the corpus cavernosum, which impedes blood flow into cavernous erectile tissue. Current medications facilitate smooth muscle relaxation and increase blood flow.

21. What is the female homologue of the male corpus spongiosum penis?

The bulb of the vestibule.

Chapter 6: Lower Limb

  1. What underlying bony feature does the point of the hip demarcate?

The greater trochanter of the femur.

  2. What three bones fuse to form the coxal (hip) bone?

Ilium, ischium, and pubis. All come together in the acetabulum.

  3. Which hip joint ligament is the strongest?

The iliofemoral ligament, which forms an inverted Y ligament (of Bigelow) that limits hyperextension.

  4. What is the major blood supply to the femoral head?

Primarily the retinacular arteries of the medial and lateral femoral circumflex, and the acetabular branch of the obturator artery, which runs in the ligament of the femoral head (less important in adults).

  5. What nerve innervates the major hip abductor muscles?

Superior gluteal nerve. Weakness of abductors (gluteus medius and minimus) on the weight-bearing limb can lead to a gluteal lurch during walking; this is known as a positive Trendelenburg sign.

  6. What nerves contribute to the formation of the lumbar plexus?

Ventral primary rami of L1-L4.

  7. What are two components of the sciatic nerve?

Tibial and common fibular nerves.

  8. What powerful flexor of the thigh at the hip attaches to the lesser trochanter?

Iliopsoas muscle.

  9. What nerve innervates muscles of the anterior compartment of the thigh?

Femoral nerve (L2-L4). These muscles are largely extensors of the leg at the knee.

10. What are the hamstring muscles?

Semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and long head of the biceps femoris. They extend the thigh at the hip and flex the leg at the knee.

11. Why are gluteal intramuscular injections given in the upper outer quadrant?

To avoid injury to the large sciatic nerve, which runs through the lower half of the gluteal region.

12. What is the pes anserinus?

An attachment arrangement of tendons of the semitendinosus, gracilis, and sartorius muscles to the medial tibial condyle (looks like a goose’s foot).

13. How does one test for an ACL injury?

Anterior drawer sign, where the tibia moves anteriorly in relation to the femur. The ACL normally prevents hyperextension of the knee and is injured more than the posterior cruciate ligament.

14. What is the unhappy triad?

Injury to the ACL, tibial collateral ligament, and medial meniscus.

15. What is the arterial blood supply to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg?

Anterior tibial artery.

16. What nerve innervates the following muscles?
Gastrocnemius Tibial
Fibularis longus Superficial fibular
Tibialis anterior Deep fibular
Plantaris Tibial
Flexor hallucis longus Deep fibular
Flexor digitorum brevis Medial plantar (from tibial)
Soleus Tibial
Abductor digiti minimi Lateral plantar (from tibial)
Plantar and dorsal interossei Lateral plantar (from tibial)
17. Foot drop may indicate an injury to which nerve?

Deep fibular nerve (if weakened eversion is also present, then it is the common fibular nerve).

18. How is the joint between the talus and tibia classified?

Talocrural joint, a uniaxial synovial hinge (ginglymus) joint.

19. What are the two bony arches of the foot?

The longitudinal and transverse arches.

20. What is the spring ligament, and why is it important?

Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, which supports the head of the talus and medial longitudinal arch of the foot. It is fairly elastic, hence its name.

21. Which tarsal bone is fractured most often?

Calcaneus. Most are intra-articular fractures in which the talus is driven down on the calcaneus, as in a fall from a great height, with a landing on the heel.

22. In the lower limb, what are the two deep tendon reflexes?

The patellar tendon reflex (L3-L4) and the calcaneal tendon reflex (S1-S2).

23. What is the blood supply to the sole of the foot?

Medial and lateral plantar arteries derived from the posterior tibial artery.

24. What are the two phases of gait?

The swing phase and the stance phase.

25. What dermatomes are associated with each of the following regions?

Inguinal region: L1
Knee: L4
Second toe: L5
Posterior leg and thigh: S1-S2

26. How does the lower limb rotate in utero compared with the upper limb?

Rotates medially 90°, while the upper limb rotates laterally 90°. Thus, the limbs are 180° out of phase with each other (knee anterior and big toe medial versus elbow posterior and thumb lateral).

Chapter 7: Upper Limb

  1. Which vein is commonly used for venipuncture?

Median cubital vein in the cubital fossa.

  2. What classification of joint is the glenohumeral joint, and what movements are possible at this joint?

Multiaxial synovial ball-and-socket joint; capable of flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, protraction and retraction, and circumduction.

  3. What feature of the shallow glenoid cavity helps to “deepen” this socket for articulation with the head of the humerus?

Fibrocartilaginous glenoid labrum.

  4. What muscles make up the rotator cuff?

Subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor muscles.

  5. What nerve is particularly vulnerable to injury in a shoulder dislocation?

Axillary nerve.

  6. What arteries contribute to the anastomosis around the scapula?

Dorsal scapular, suprascapular, and subscapular arteries.

  7. For each nerve listed, identify the muscles innervated:

Axillary: Deltoid and teres minor
Dorsal scapular: Levator scapulae and rhomboids
Medial pectoral: Pectoralis minor and major
Upper subscapular: Subscapularis
Lower subscapular: Subscapularis and teres major
Long thoracic: Serratus anterior
Thoracodorsal: Latissimus dorsi

  8. What are the five terminal branches of the brachial plexus?

Axillary, musculocutaneous, radial, median, and ulnar nerves.

  9. Which arm muscle flexes at the elbow and is a powerful supinator?

Biceps brachii muscle.

10. Tapping the triceps tendon checks the integrity of which spinal cord levels? Biceps tendon?

C7 and C8 (radial nerve). C5 and C6 (musculocutaneous nerve).

11. Fracture of the midshaft of the humerus places what nerve at risk of entrapment?

Radial nerve.

12. At the proximal radioulnar (uniaxial synovial pivot) joint, what ligament keeps the radial head in the radial notch of the ulna?

Anular ligament.

13. What common site of origin is shared by superficial muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm?

Medial epicondyle of the humerus.

14. What are the primary actions of each of the following muscles?

Flexor carpi radialis: Flex and abduct hand at wrist
Flexor digitorum superficialis: Flex middle phalanges of medial four digits
Flexor digitorum profundus: Flex distal phalanges of medial four digits
Brachioradialis: Flex forearm at elbow
Extensor carpi ulnaris: Extend and adduct hand at wrist
Extensor digitorum: Extend medial four digits at metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint
Extensor pollicis brevis: Extend proximal phalanx of thumb at MCP joint
Abductor pollicis longus: Abduct and extend thumb at MCP joint

15. What are the actions and innervation of muscles of the posterior forearm compartment?

Extensors of wrist and/or digits, and supinator of the forearm; radial nerve.

16. Which carpal lies deep to the anatomical snuffbox and is frequently fractured by falls on an outstretched hand?

Scaphoid.

17. What is a Colles fracture?

A common extension-compression fracture of the distal radius that results in a typical dinner fork deformity.

18. What muscles flex the MCP joints and extend the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints of the middle three digits?

Lumbrical and interosseous muscles.

19. What nerve innervates the thenar eminence muscles?

Median (recurrent branch) nerve.

20. What is the carpal tunnel?

Osseofascial tunnel consisting of the carpal arch and overlying flexor retinaculum (transverse carpal ligament). It contains nine muscle tendons and the median nerve.

21. Where on the hand would you test sensation for each of the following nerves?

Median nerve: Palmar (volar) tip of the index finger
Ulnar nerve: Palmar (volar) tip of the little finger
Radial nerve: Dorsal web space between the thumb and index finger

22. Injury of what nerve is responsible for each of the following presentations?

Thenar atrophy: Median
Hypothenar atrophy: Ulnar
Claw hand: Ulnar
Wrist drop: Radial
First dorsal interosseous atrophy: Ulnar
Paresthesia along lateral forearm: Musculocutaneous
Paresthesia over lateral deltoid: Axillary
Weakened finger adduction: Ulnar
Winging of scapula: Long thoracic

23. Which part of the myotome is innervated by the ventral ramus of a spinal nerve?

The hypomere (hypaxial muscles); these include all the muscles of the upper limb.

24. What dermatome overlies each of the following structures or features?

Shoulder: C5-C6
Middle finger: C7
Little finger: C8
Elbow: C7-C8
Medial arm: T1

Chapter 8: Head and Neck

  1. For each of the following foramina, identify the nerve(s) that pass through that foramen:
Superior orbital fissure Oculomotor, trochlear, abducent, and V1
Rotundum V2
Ovale V3, lesser petrosal (occasionally)
Internal acoustic meatus Facial and vestibulocochlear
Jugular Glossopharyngeal, vagus, and spinal accessory
  2. About how much CSF is produced per day, and where is it reabsorbed into the venous system?

About 500 mL/day is produced; CSF is reabsorbed by the arachnoid granulations (most significant site) and small capillaries along the brainstem and spinal cord.

  3. Trace venous blood in the superior petrosal sinus to the right atrium.

Superior petrosal sinus to sigmoid sinus to internal jugular vein to brachiocephalic vein (right or left) to superior vena cava to right atrium.

  4. For each intracranial hematoma, suggest the most likely vascular source:
Epidural Arterial, usually the middle meningeal or its branches
Subdural Venous, often the cortical bridging veins
Subarachnoid Arterial, often from saccular (berry) aneurysms
  5. How is the facial cranial nerve classified functionally?

GSA: sensory to the skin of the ear
SVA: special sense of taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
GVE: motor to glands; salivary, nasal, and lacrimal
SVE: motor to muscles of facial expression and those from the second pharyngeal arch

  6. Trace the pathway of tears from the lacrimal gland to the nasal cavity.

Lacrimal gland (CN VII secretomotor fibers) to lacrimal ducts to bulbar conjunctival and corneal surfaces, then to lacrimal lake, to lacrimal punctum (superior and inferior) to lacrimal canaliculi to lacrimal sac, down the nasolacrimal duct and into the inferior meatus of the inferior nasal concha.

  7. During clinical testing of the extraocular muscles, which two muscles elevate the eye and what nerves innervate them?

SR (CN III) and IO (CN III), in abduction and adduction, respectively.

  8. Define the following refractive disorders:

Myopia: Nearsightedness; difficulty seeing distant objects clearly
Hyperopia: Farsightedness; difficulty seeing close objects clearly
Presbyopia: Progressive loss of ability to accommodate the lens and clearly focus on close objects

  9. What is glaucoma, and which type is most common?

Resistance to the outflow of aqueous humor, usually primary open angle, resulting from impedance at the canal of Schlemm or of the trabecular meshwork, or from venous backpressure.

10. Account for each clinical sign of Horner’s syndrome.

Ptosis: loss of innervation of superior tarsal (smooth) muscle (distal part of levator palpebrae muscle of upper eyelid)
Miosis: loss of innervation of dilator muscle of the pupil
Anhydrosis: loss of innervation of sweat glands
Flushed face: unopposed vasodilation of cutaneous vessels
(Each sign represents loss of sympathetic innervation)

11. What nerve innervates the parotid salivary gland?

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from CN IX (inferior salivatory nucleus) innervate the gland and travel via the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion, where they synapse. Postganglionic fibers then jump onto the auriculotemporal branch of V3 and pass to the parotid gland (secretomotor fibers).

12. What deficits might be expected if the chorda tympani nerve is damaged?

Loss of salivary secretion in the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands, and loss of taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

13. Which paranasal sinuses drain into the middle meatus beneath the middle nasal concha?

Frontal, maxillary, and anterior and middle ethmoid sinuses.

14. Identify the five nerves innervating the tongue.

Motor: CN XII; sensory: CN V3 (anterior), CN IX (posterior), and CN X (epiglottis); taste: CN VII (anterior) and CN IX (posterior).

15. What nerve(s) innervate the infrahyoid muscles (strap muscles) of the neck?

Ansa cervicalis (C1-C3) of the cervical plexus.

16. Where can one find the phrenic nerve in the neck, and what does it innervate?

The phrenic nerve (C3-C5) appears on the anterior surface of the anterior scalene muscle and innervates the diaphragm.

17. What are the arterial branches of the thyrocervical trunk?

Inferior thyroid, transverse cervical, and suprascapular.

18. During thyroid surgery, what nerve must be identified and preserved?

Recurrent laryngeal nerve, which innervates the muscles of the larynx.

19. What are the three subdivisions of the pharynx?

Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx (called hypopharynx by many clinicians).

20. What is the retropharyngeal space, and why is it important?

A potential space between the alar and prevertebral fascial layers. An infection in this space can spread superiorly to the base of the skull or inferiorly into the posterior mediastinum.

21. What is Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring?

A ring of lymphoid tissues around the oropharynx including the palatine, lingual, and nasopharyngeal tonsils.

22. Where are the neurons located that give rise to all postganglionic sympathetic fibers innervating the head?

Superior cervical ganglion.

23. Developmentally, the hindbrain gives rise to what CNS regions?

Metencephalon (pons and cerebellum) and myelencephalon (medulla oblongata).

24. What cranial nerve is associated with the third pharyngeal arch, and what bones or cartilages are derived from this arch?

CN IX (innervates the stylopharyngeus muscle); the inferior half and greater horns of the hyoid bone are derived from the third arch.

25. How would you clinically test each CN?

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